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- Even though the last drink was over 8 hours ago, would you still be allowed to conduct commercial drone flight operations today? Part In the eyes of the FAA, a remote pilot cannot operate a drone when they are experiencing a hangover, even if they...
- Wind shear is not always easy to predict and can vary in direction, altitude, and speed. If you see your drone getting thrown around unexpectedly, it may be from wind shear. Correct Answer: C Question To find out more information about parachute...
- For reasons that are too long and too complex to try to explain here, stable air is generally characterized by smooth flying weather and poor visibility, and continuous steady precipitation. Unstable air masses are generally made up of areas where there is a lot of quickly rising warm air. This usually is characterized by good visibility, lots of turbulence, and showery precipitation. Correct Answer: C Question If the center of gravity on your aircraft is too far aft rearward , what is the likely result? A The aircraft will have difficulty recovering from a stalled position B The aircraft will not be able to maintain a constant turn C The aircraft will have increased airspeed The center of gravity is the point in the aircraft where the aircraft is perfectly balanced. When this balance is out of line, it can affect the aerodynamic performance of the aircraft.
- The center of gravity can be too far aft which means too far back towards the rear of the aircraft , when the aircraft is not loaded properly. Air is not able to flow over the wing with enough velocity to generate lift for the aircraft. To recover from a stall, pilots will pitch the nose of the aircraft DOWN in order to reduce the angle of attack, build up more airspeed, and have ample airflow over the wing. If the center of gravity is too far aft remember: rearward , it will be difficult for the pilot to pitch the nose of the aircraft forward and recover from the stall. See the diagram below for an illustration of this concept. So our answer to this question is that having the CG to far aft will cause the aircraft to have difficulty recovering from a stalled position.
FAA Part 107 Test Questions (72 Test Questions Explained) [2021]
Where would the aircraft be relative to the runway? A The aircraft is East. B The aircraft is South. C The aircraft is West. If you were landing or taking off on runway 13, your aircraft would be on a heading of degrees a southeast direction. You can see from looking at the Cooperstown airport symbol on the chart that there is only one runway, and it faces northwest and southeast. All runways will have two numbers at each end. Those two numbers indicate the magnetic heading of the runway with the zero at the end of the number dropped. So runway 09 would be facing 90 degrees due East if you were taking off or landing on that runway.- See image below for more examples. Every active runway at an airport has a traffic pattern. Left traffic patterns mean that the aircraft will be making a series of left turns as it flies through the traffic pattern. If the aircraft was flying a left traffic pattern and was halfway through the downwind leg, it would be east and a little north of the airport. In this instance, North or North East are not answer choices, so East is the best answer choice in this question. Correct Answer: A Question You are at dinner with a client and enjoy a glass of wine, after dinner, your client asks you to demonstrate some maneuvers with your small UAS.
Part 107 Test: 21 Practice Questions You’re Sure To See (with Detailed Explanations)
Under Part , would this be allowed? A No, remote pilots must wait a minimum of 8 hours after consuming any alcohol before conducting flight operations B Yes, one glass of wine is below the minimum threshold for alcohol consumption C Yes, as long as the remote PIC determines that his or her judgement or flight abilities are not impaired As we discussed in a previous practice question, Part In the above example, you just consumed a glass of wine, therefore would not be able to operate a drone under Part rules until you met the 8 hour rule, along with the other provisions of Part A For manned aircraft pilots to self-announce their positions in and around non-towered airports B For remote PICs to communicate with one another during flight operations C For ATC to monitor all uncontrolled airspace Airports with no towers or with towers that are only open part of the time rely on pilot self-reporting for air traffic management. When you are asked about tower heights, you will always want to refer to the above ground level AGL number.- Remember in a previous question we talked about how obstruction i. The mean sea level MSL height will be displayed on top and the above ground level AGL height will be underneath in parenthesis. If you look at the group of towers that the question is talking about, you will see two towers that seem much higher than the rest. One of the towers reads 3, on the top and 1, in parenthesis underneath. The other tower reads 3, on top and 1, in parenthesis underneath. It may be tempting to choose the larger top number, since it shows up in our answer choices and is the largest number numerically the other numbers start with 2 and 1.
- MSL height just tells you how high that tower is above sea level and has no bearing on how high off of the ground the structure goes to. If you look at the numbers in the parenthesis underneath, you will see that 1, AGL is the larger number. Under question 2, there is a detailed explanation at how to arrive at the answer for these questions, so we will only quickly go over that info here, but will touch on the key points in this question.
- If you remember back to question 2, for this type of question, we will need to know what type of airspace surrounds the airport, along with the elevation of the airport. We can see that a shaded magenta ring surrounds Sandpoint airport, meaning that Class E airspace begins the floor is at feet AGL. We can look at the answer choices and see that feet AGL is not an option, so we will need to figure out what that altitude is in MSL at Sandpoint airport. If we add feet to this, we will get 2, feet MSL. Which of the following is true? This question will test your ability to first find a location on the sectional chart and then determine if you are operating in uncontrolled or controlled airspace. When I had this question on my exam, it took me forever to actually locate where Blencoe and Onawaw were small black dots and text on the chart. So if anything, hopefully we can shortcut that for you! Once you find Onawa and Blencoe, you can follow the railroad path to see what airspace it goes through.
- As you will notice, there are no markings that would indicate any controlled airspace, thus no prior airspace authorization would be required before conducting this flight. Correct Answer: A Also, note that answer choice C is incorrect because we can see that this is a commercial operation inspecting a railroad. Commercial operations are conducted under the Part rules. The Part rules only require prior authorization from the FAA if you are going to be entering controlled airspace. If this was a recreational flight operated under Part rules , we would have to notify the Onawa airport before flying, since we are within 5 miles of the airport.
- Looking for More Part Test Practice? Founder of Drone Launch Academy. I wanted to also make sure that we had some really high-quality, free information available to everyone who is considering getting their remote pilot certificate and becoming a professional drone pilot. I hope you found this 21 questions guide helpful in your preparation for your Part test! If you are looking for more in-depth study prep, you will want to sign up for another 10 free questions or check out our Part Test Prep Course. The course will take you through everything you need to know for the Part test, step-by-step.
- Taking a look through our database of nearly practice questions, below are the 13 that jump out and can hopefully give you an idea as to the kind of trickery the FAA has up their sleeve. Which thunderstorm lifecycle stage is mostly characterized by downdrafts? Wind shear, density altitude, temperature inversion, the different types of fog…these are all concepts you can be tested on. This means that the aircraft is on a heading of: A 80 degrees B degrees C degrees This question tests your understanding of runway orientation and normal aircraft traffic patterns. On Runway 16, aircraft will be taking off and landing toward degrees.
- So the opposite heading or degrees from degrees is degrees. It can be helpful to sketch this type of question out on a separate sheet of paper. Imagine that the runway in the illustration below is 16 instead of 36, and sketch out the compass orientation to help you answer the question. Where would the aircraft be relative to the runway? A The aircraft is East.
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B The aircraft is South. C The aircraft is West. Make sure to review the Airport Operations lecture! Refer to Figure 25, area 4. MSL B 3, ft. MSL C 4, ft. Take your time to first identify where Hicks Airport T67 is located. MSL, and the floor is 4, ft. Refer to Figure 20, area 1. A ft. MSL B ft. AGL C 1, ft. MSL While the Part regulations state a maximum altitude of ft. In this case, the height of the high-intensity lighted group of structures under construction 9 statute miles SM south of Norfolk Intl airport is ft. Refer to Figure What minimum elevation should a manned aircraft pilot fly to clear all obstacles in the quadrant surrounding Montrose Rgnl MTJ?- A 5, ft. MSL B 10, ft. MSL C 11, ft. The airport info text spans two quadrants, but the airport icon is in the top right quadrant. The large number represents thousands of feet MSL. The small number represents hundreds of feet MSL. MSL Remember that the MEF is the minimum altitude that you can fly in a given quadrangle and still be able to clear all obstacles in that quadrangle, including terrain and obstructions. The maximum elevation is rounded up and then another ft. AGL B 1, ft. AGL C 3, ft. Victor Airways are identified by a number, similar to an interstate highway.
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Victor Airways are always designated as Class E airspace and extend from a base of 1, ft. AGL up to 18, ft. A In this question, the CTAF frequency is C Instrument training flights below 1, feet AGL at speeds in excess of knots. Typically, the routes above 1, ft. All of this information is displayed on a straight line, with an arrow. MTRs with four numbers denote routes flown at 1, ft. AGL and below. At such a low altitude, this can present challenges to an unmanned aircraft. MTRs with three numbers denote routes flown with at least one segment above 1, ft. After locating the Corpus Christi Intl airport CRP icon on the chart, look for the airport information text next to the icon.- MSL C ft. AGL While the Part regulations state a maximum altitude of ft. Refer to Figure 26, area 5. B Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. Up until ft. Refer to Figure 26 Which airport is located at approximately A Cooperstown.
- InspiredOne said: Okay, thank you, LP, for the clarification. Much appreciated. Still it looks like over-kill for someone limited to feet above ground and line-of-sight flying. Then again, the total tonnage of what I don't understand would be enough to sink a Nimitz Class aircraft carrier! That second link to the booklet included "Sport Pilot," which would apply light sport aircraft, such as the Icon A5 and the Carbon Cub, either of which I would love to own. Click to expand It is only safe and reasonable to ensure operators in the National Airspace have the necessary aeronautical knowledge to do so safely and the written exam now does that. Keep in mind the feds are not only considering consumer level Phantoms and Yuneecs, but very large UAVs under 55 lbs. The foot limit still involves large numbers of public safety and EMS helicopters plus fixed wing aircraft involved in take off and landings and other low level activities we r not the only one taking photos.
- Are we still going to have commercial operators flying like yahoos? Of course. But now they also risk their remote pilot certificate, in addition to other local penalties.
- If you change your mailing address, you must update your sUAS registration information within A 7 days C 30 days Everyone has been answering 30 days. The keyword is registration, not pilot certificate read all about drone registration. Remember: is a nice round number. Process of elimination means that 87 knots is the only other correct answer. A dashed magenta line means that the airport surface is Class E. This legend will be in your testing supplement booklet — use it! During preflight planning, you plan to operate in R Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace? A Restricted area is a type of Special Use Airspace. Every VFR sectional chart has a Special Use Airspace table in the margins indicating hours of operation, altitudes, and controlling agency. The Charts Supplement U. Runway 07 means on the compass rose, which is right before going clockwise. If there is no left or right, the default is left.
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So how do you get a drone pilot license? I gave a pretty detailed outline of my experience taking the Part test, which you should check out here. Here are some commonly asked questions and accompanying answers! Applicants need to schedule the testing appointment in advance and bring a government-issued photo ID. How do I study for the UAS aeronautical knowledge test? The good news: anyone, including non-pilots, can register and take for free. Read more about the training course here. You can pick up your own copy here. Take an online study course: Many private companies have also put together training sessions either in-person, webinars, practice tests, etc.HVAC Practice Exam ( Current). Explained Answers & Instant Scoring.
Check out my guide on UAS aeronautical knowledge test training courses here. Drone Launch Academy : this is another professional, online training course with repeatable videos and study guides. Drone Pilot Ground School offers a fantastic online training course with practice tests and repeatable videos this is actually the course I used…and I passed on my first try! The FAA drone test areas include: Applicable regulations relating to small unmanned aircraft system rating privileges, limitations, and flight operation Airspace classification and operating requirements, and flight restrictions affecting small unmanned aircraft operation Aviation weather sources and effects of weather on small unmanned aircraft performance Small unmanned aircraft loading and performance Emergency procedures.- Explanation This question tests your knowledge on an often-unmentioned type of airspace. We can tell in a few ways: first, it has encompassed by a blue dotted line, and second, the bracketed [36] is a dead giveaway. All controlled airspace that lists altitude explicitly lists it with a floor, and a ceiling, except class D airspace. Class D airspace always starts at the surface, and extends up to and including the number you see in the brackets unless they use a negative sign, in which case it does not include the number in the brackets. That is a very special type of Class E airspace, known as Class E surface extensions.
FAA Part 107 UAS Aeronautical Knowledge Test: Everything You Need To Know (except The Answers)
Technically, you do not need to request authorization to fly in this airspace, because it does not represent core, lateral Class E surface airspace around a Class E airport! It is simply an extension to the Class D airspace. So, the correct answer is C, Class E extensions. A 2 statute miles C 4 statute miles Explanation So first, we need to navigate to the mid-left portion of Figure 78 to find Pender airport. Next, we need wake up and realize that we actually never needed to do that in the first place, because the required flight visibility for a remote pilot never changes.- I could have listed any airport here, and the answer will always be 3 statute miles, or B. Question 6 According to 14 CFR Part , the remote pilot in command PIC of a small unmanned aircraft planning to operate within Class D airspace A Must only operate within the outer ring of the airspace B Must use a visual observer C Is required to receive ATC authorization Explanation This question specifically tests your understanding of Class D airspace, and broadly tests your understanding of all controlled airspace. Option B states that you must use a visual observer in Class D airspace. If an unmanned airplane weighs 15 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude? A 15 pounds C 30 pounds Explanation This question covers the only math-based question that you are likely to see on the exam — questions pertaining to load factor.
- If we go to Figure 2, we can see a table on the left, and a graph on the right — they are related. The left column of the table translates to the X-axis the bottom of the graph, and the right column of the table translates to the red line itself. Knowing that the aircraft is making a 60 degree banked turn, we look at both the table and the graph and see that a 60 degree bank angle correlates with a load factor of 2. The wing must produce lift equal to these load factors if the altitude is to be maintained. That is because a 90 degree banked, constant altitude turn is not mathematically possible. Question 8 According to 14 CFR part , who is responsible for ensuring a safe small unmanned aircraft operating environment? The key thing to remember here is that the remote PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority, as to the operation of the small unmanned aircraft system. So who is responsible for anything that goes on during a planned flight operation?
- Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer. Which of the following is not a private insurance carrier? Cigna c. United Healthcare d. A patient comes in with a piece of metal shavings in his eye that he got while welding at his job. He has Anthem health insurance through his work. Which of the following insurances would cover his visit? Medicaid c. Worker's compensation d. His private insurance will not cover a work-based injury. The insurance company will be notified because there is a specific box on the CMS form that asks whether this injury was related to work.
- HMOs cost less, but provide better care. PPO plans cover out of network visits, but usually at a significantly reduced rate, e. HMO plans do not allow for visits out of network. Medical Billing Regulations The time allowed to submit a claim to Medicare is: a. Other insurances, such as Humana, have shorter timely filing periods of 90 days. Claims can be submitted to Medicare after 1 year but will be denied for timely filing limit and no payment will be received. The amount a provider charges the insurance company for services: a. Varies depending on how much the insurance reimburses for that procedure b. Must be a set amount per procedure for all insurance carriers c. Must be a set amount for each particular insurance carrier d. According to CMS, which form must be obtained and signed for Medicare beneficiaries receiving non-covered services before those services are rendered?
13 Most Challenging Part Test Prep Questions | Drone Pilot Ground School
CMS c. NBN d. This form must include a breakdown of all costs and the reason why it will not be covered. CMS is used to submit claims and beneficiaries never see it. Marge has Medicaid and goes to see the chiropractor once a week. Marge's insurance card lists no copay. According to Medicaid regulations: a. It is illegal to bill Medicaid patients without signed consent. Marge should call Medicaid to see if her copay has changed.What Drone Pilots Need To Know About The Part Exam | DroneSense
The chiropractor should refund her money and bill her insurance properly. Even if a service is not covered when billed to Medicaid, the balance cannot be billed to the patient afterwards. A Medicare patient calls. She's been seeing Dr. Hamilton for 10 years for her chronic conditions. She's going to have to make payments on the furnace as it is. She wants to know if there's any way you could give her a break and waive the deductible. How should the billing professional respond? Hamilton and see if there isn't anything that can be done to help you. You must keep a record of this form in the patient's records.
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